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NEW QUESTION: 1
Which of the following can be an effective tool during quality control to help determine the how the problem occurred?
A. Trend Analysis
B. Rework
C. Flowcharting
D. Pareto Diagram
Answer: C

NEW QUESTION: 2
An 18-year-old female is referred to a dermatologist for treatment of severe acne vulgaris. The dermatologist wants to start her on tetracycline.
What test should the patient have prior to starting treatment?
A. Chest X-ray
B. Complete blood count
C. Creatine kinase
D. Liver function tests
E. Pregnancy test
Answer: E
Explanation:
Explanation
Pregnancy test. Tetracyclines are effective in the treatment of severe cases of acne. They are however teratogenic. As such, it is imperative to make sure female patients are not pregnant prior to starting this medication. In many instances patients are started on concurrent birth control to mitigate this risk even further.
A chest x-ray (B) is an important exam to obtain prior to starting drugs which have pulmonary toxicity as a side effect such as amiodarone. A complete blood count (C) would be useful prior to starting a medication that causes anemia, such as immunosuppressive and chemotherapeutic agents. Liver function tests (D) are important to establish as a baseline prior to starting anti-mycobacterial agents. Creatine kinase levels (E) are used to establish as a baseline prior to starting statins.

NEW QUESTION: 3
Who is ultimately responsible for ensuring that information is categorized and that protective measures are taken?
A. Information security officer
B. Data custodian
C. Data owner
D. Security steering committee
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Routine administration of all aspects of security is delegated, but senior management must retain overall responsibility. The information security officer supports and implements information security for senior management. The data owner is responsible for categorizing data security requirements. The data custodian supports and implements information security as directed.

NEW QUESTION: 4
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2008 R2.
You add a new 3-terabyte hard disk to Server1.
You need to create a 3-terabyte volume.
What should you do first?
A. Disable write caching for the hard disk.
B. Initialize the disk as a GUID Partition Table (GPT) disk.
C. Disable direct memory access (DMA) for the hard disk controller.
D. Initialize the disk as a Master Boot Record (MBR) disk.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A GPT disk uses the GUID partition table (GPT) disk partitioning system. A GPT disk offers these benefits: Allows up to 128 primary partitions. Master Boot Record (MBR) disks can support up to four primary partitions and an additional 124 partitions inside extended partitions.
Allows a much larger partition size--greater than 2 terabytes (TB), which is the limit for MBR disks.
Provides greater reliability because of replication and cyclical redundancy check (CRC) protection of the partition table can be used as a storage volume on all x64-based platforms, including platforms running Windows XP Professional x64 Edition. Starting with Windows Server 2003 SP1, GPT disks can also be used as a storage volume on x86based Windows platforms. Can be used as a boot volume on x64-based editions of Windows 7, Windows Vista, and Windows Server 2008. Starting with Windows Server 2003 SP1, GPT disks can also be used as a boot volume on Itaniumbased\ systems. Note: Windows only supports booting from a GPT disk on systems that contain Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI) boot firmware.
Source: http://www.microsoft.com/whdc/device/storage/GPT-on-x64.mspx